Superficially this, at least to me, makes Jesus sound downright un-Jesus-like. Jesus is saying, if I may paraphrase, “I’m here for the Jews and not for you, the Gentiles.” Even worse, he is using the ultimate no-no of near eastern insults: you dogs. Calling someone a dog in that part of the world is like, in medieval Britain, saying: "Your mother is a hamster, and your father smells of elderberries!" Okay, actually it's much worse.Now the woman was a Gentile, a Syrophoenician by birth. And she begged him to cast the demon out of her daughter. And he said to her, “Let the children be fed first, for it is not right to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs.” But she answered him, “Yes, Lord; yet even the dogs under the table eat the children's crumbs.” And he said to her, “For this statement you may go your way; the demon has left your daughter.” (Mark 7:26-29) [1]
There is a common explanation for this: That Jesus’ ministry really was just for the Jews, and he had to be convinced, on a case by case basis, to extend his grace to the Gentiles. There are other examples: the Samaritan woman at the well, the Centurion’s servant, etc. It seems the exception becomes the rule.
I do not buy this explanation. Nor do I buy that the woman’s response was just so clever (and it was indeed clever) that Jesus, highly appreciative of her intelligence, relented.
No, I think Jesus is using a rhetorical device, and in fact I think that every time Jesus appears harsh it’s only because we can’t see his body language, his expressions, and the tone of his voice to discern that he is using the language richly. I’m speculating, but I think Jesus was being sarcastic, and I think the woman knew it; she picked up on it. I think Jesus was in effect saying:
“Why should I help you, a Gentile? Don’t you know what the Jewish officials think of you? They think you are dogs!”
I don't think Jesus winked at this point, but I think his tone and expression sent a virtual wink. Again, just speculating, because I am trying to make this conversation compatible with what we know of the normally gentle character of Jesus, in evidence whenever he had no reason for a display of righteous anger.
She didn’t surprise Jesus with her admirable wit (or maybe she did, with the impressive extent thereof), causing him to relent. He basically was her straight man—he set her up and her reply did not devastate Jesus’ reluctance to help a Gentile, it devastated those who expected Jesus to restrict his healing to the Jews. He used her for a teachable moment.
At least that’s how I see it. Because I don’t believe Jesus was ever truly harsh.
[1]As a minor point, Matthew describes the woman not as a Phoenician but as a Canaanite. Those are different. Maybe the difference is where she was born compared to where she currently lived. I don’t know. I don’t much care, either.
I have also always had trouble with this passage but this is the best explanation I have heard. Reminds me of Kings 22:15-16 where we can only imagine the particular way that Micaiah spoke those words in order for Ahab to respond as he did. Even when I read it for the umpteenth time I have to actively think "sarcasm" in order to read it in the right way in my mind without any of the cues used in modern writing like italics, quotations marks, or other dialectic indicators. This is a complete guess (not even an educated one), but I would imagine the ancient reader would be quicker to think of the possibility of sarcasm when reading dialogue than the modern reader.
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